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The Law & Verbal Agreements

By: Garry Crystal - Updated: 26 Aug 2016 | comments*Discuss
 
Verbal Agreements Legal Binding

Many people are not aware that verbal agreements are in many cases as legally binding as written contracts. Verbal contracts can be upheld by a court if someone decides to breach the agreement, although without written terms and conditions it may be difficult to prove.

Conditions of a Verbal Agreement

Under law there are two basic terms that constitute a binding agreement. The verbal agreement will be binding if there was an agreement on the services to be performed and an agreement was reached on remuneration for this service. This agreement can be reached by a verbal exchange in person, via telephone or via an email.

There are certain contracts and agreements that must be made in writing and these will include the sale of property, tenancy agreements, copyright transfer, and contracts for consumer credit. In some cases, verbal agreements will not be upheld in court, not because of the lack of a written agreement but because the terms of the verbal agreement were not clarified.

Written Agreements

For any agreement concerning an exchange of services it is a wise idea to have some form of contract or written statement. The contract or statement should include the terms and conditions of the agreement and is particularly helpful if a dispute between the parties occurs.

Complete Verbal Agreements

In order for a verbal agreement to be legally binding the agreement must have reached completeness. This means that all terms and conditions have been reached and agreed regarding services and terms of pay. Agreements will be incomplete when there are still further terms and conditions to be agreed. Agreements in principle will not usually be upheld in court and will not usually be considered complete verbal agreements.

Verbal Agreements and Disputes

If either party has decided to break a contract then the matter can be taken to the legal courts. In most cases the dispute may rest on the justification of the terms of the verbal agreement. There are a few ways that a judge will try and establish the terms of the agreement. These could include investigating what actually happened in practice. This can include the services that were actually undertaken and if any money whatsoever was paid for any services.

Enforcing a Verbal Agreement

Apart from taking the matter to court there are other ways to enforce a verbal agreement. If money is owed then the matter can be passed on to a collection agency to try to enforce the matter for you. The disgruntled party can also apply pressure themselves by sending letter, emails and making telephone calls to the person who is in breach of contract. Copies of all emails and letters should be kept in case the matter does reach the law courts.

Payment before Service

One way of avoiding this sort of dispute ever occurring may be to ask for some form of payment before supplying a service. Although the customer may not always agree to this it may be an option to consider. In some cases if a person is going to breach a contract and withhold payment then the odds are they may never have intended to pay for the service in the first place. In many cases though a customer may not like the idea of paying for a service until the job is completed for fear of non completion.

Threatening court action for breach of a verbal contract may not actually help the matter at all if one party intended not to carry through on the agreement. However the law does consider complete verbal agreements as Legally Binding and the matter can be brought to the law courts for a judge to make the final decision.

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Hello, approximately 15 years ago my Mum purchased a memorial bench for my father who had died and this bench was placed at the crematorium where his ashes were. The bench was purchased from the local council who made arrangements for it to be placed near the site my father's ashes were scattered. For the last 14 years the council has maintained the bench but recently my Mum has been made aware that the bench has not been maintained and when raised with the council they stated that responsibility for the site had passed to a contractor some years ago (2008) and that it was my Mum's responsibility to maintain the bench. The council says they have no paperwork to show that there was a maintenance agreement by them to look after the bench and that the bench is my Mum's and all responsibility for maintenance is hers. Am I right in saying that there is a contract in place and the fact that the council have maintained the bench all these years would give my Mum a good case to prove that in fact there is also a service agreement in place and that they should continue to honour this despite there being no written contract. Would be grateful for any advice you could give thank you.
Stan - 26-Aug-16 @ 9:35 PM
I am currently on a dispute with my landlord. Basically, we gave him a 20 days notice to leave the house though it does mention a 2 months notice in the contract. After our written notice, we spoke to him in person to ask if he would agree to this. He confirmed that since we have been good tenants and kept the house clean, always with less complaints, he is ready to accept only 20 days notice and asked us to give him back the keys on the 21st day. He came to the house, inspected everything and walked away happily. Now, when we ask him for the deposit he claims since we had not given him 2 months notice, we owe him money. Money for the utility bills, council tax and the rent for the remaining 40 days. He has sent us a statement explaining everything we owe. On top of that, he has added a 5% increase in the rental amount every year (our tenancy contract apparently had a clause of rent to be increased by 5% every year). However, we have lived there for 3 years paying him the same contract amount without the increase, and he has never given us a notice for the rent increase. He has never once mentioned about this until now, when we give him notice of leaving the tenancy. Though it is mentioned in the contract, which was originally for a year but has not been renewed, does he not need to give us notice for the rent increase? Also, since he verbally agreed to our notice, does he now have right to ask for rent and utility bills until the 2 end of 2 months notice period? Please advise. We have been confronted with a massive invoice, andour deposit iso stuck too.
Lee - 25-Aug-16 @ 8:01 PM
My partner had a written agreement drawn up with his ex wife in 2009... in that she owes him money and she said that she would give him it when house was sold, and agreed he paid £50 a week for he's children..when his daughter was 20 he halved the money to 100 for his youngest daughter .his ex wife still has not sold the house and now has Child maintenance services after him they are looking into the agreement ...is this a legal binding agreement if it was made by both parties and there solicitors
Charlie - 24-Aug-16 @ 5:34 PM
a potential buyer offered, through the agent, and extra £1000, if I would take my house off the market at once, to which I readily agreed, and accepted his full offer with the £1000. However, he defaulted on the purchase, and i think that he should pay me the £1000, as it was not part of the "sale", and he had a contract to pay me £1000to remove it from the market--which I complied with.I consider this a contract, and separate from the sale--am I right in thinking this was a contract with me--even if it was passed by the agent?
mushroom - 22-Aug-16 @ 9:22 AM
My neighbour employed her builders to refurbish my showeroom. The work commenced with all correspondence by email between my neighbour and the builder nothing was ever sent or addressed to me. My neighbour finally gave up with the builder due the time being taken and quality of their work and told them to do no further work for her. About 3weeks elapsed and the builder contacted me by phone asking if I knew what had happened and offered to complete the work on the bathroom on a direct basis, this I declined. In early January I received an invoice for £2,000 for work they had done. This was a replacement invoice to the one that was originally sent to my neighbour and then credited back. Even though I have maintained no contract existed between us and they should go back to the person who employed them. They are perusing a claim for £2,000 saying that I supposedly at sometime asked when they were likely to start work and that this constituted a Verbal Contract. The timing of the start and anything else was always agreed with my neighbour directly. Is there a case to answer?
Al Banil - 17-Aug-16 @ 7:04 PM
james19000 - Your Question:
Currently in dispute with my neighbour.we tried to reroof the property which is split into two flats.We both engaged in communications with a builder to provide an estimate to do the work.Our Neighbour organised a start date with the builder and asked us to pay our share of the deposit, saying that she will wait for our confirmation before paying herself.Having not heard from us, she phoned my partner. Which is where the dispute starts.My neighbour claims that my partner agreed / or confirmed. My partner says that this is incorrect and in fact only agreed that we would not insist upon a joint bank account for the forth coming works.Our neighbour then pays the deposit and says work will begin the following monday.At this point we haven't paid any deposit, because we were waiting for an adjustment to be made to the initial estimate and we hadn't confirmed anything or even agreed to use the builder.I then discover that the builders company is being dissolved and I write and tell the neighbour to get their deposit back, which our neighbour confirms is refundable.in between I email our neighbour saying that we don't want to use this builder any moremonths go by, then our neighbour advises us that the builder is now refusing to refund the deposit.Our neighbour is now taking us to small claims court for the loss of their deposit, claiming that we are responsible for the loss of their deposit.Anyone reading this, care to share some professional opinion.

Our Response:
The obvious person to take to the small claims court would be the builder, if the deposit was specified as refundable. I'm afraid we cannot comment on specific cases - for this you would need to seek professional legal advice.
ContractsAndAgreements - 16-Aug-16 @ 10:33 AM
Currently in dispute with my neighbour. we tried to reroof the property which is split into two flats. We both engaged in communications with a builder to provide an estimate to do the work. Our Neighbour organised a start date with the builder and asked us to pay our share of the deposit, saying that she will wait for our confirmation before paying herself. Having not heard from us, she phoned my partner. Which is where the dispute starts. My neighbour claims that my partner agreed / or confirmed. My partner says that this is incorrect and in fact only agreed that we would not insist upon a joint bank account for the forth coming works. Our neighbour then pays the deposit and says work will begin the following monday. At this point we haven't paid any deposit, because we were waiting for an adjustment to be made to the initial estimate and we hadn't confirmed anything or even agreed to use the builder. I then discover that the builders company is being dissolved and I write and tell the neighbour to get their deposit back, which our neighbour confirms is refundable. in between I email our neighbour saying that we don't want to use this builder any more months go by, then our neighbour advises us that the builder is now refusing to refund the deposit. Our neighbour is now taking us to small claims court for the loss of their deposit, claiming that we are responsible for the loss of their deposit. Anyone reading this, care to share some professional opinion.
james19000 - 15-Aug-16 @ 10:38 AM
I would like to know where I stand when I have been offered a position verbally via the telephone depending on checks and references, then the manager of the department refuses to set me on because someone who l worked with over 5 years ago whom I didn't always get along with has said something bad about me, in order for the manager to change their mind about me, what can I do to clear my name? Please can you help? This is making me go out of my mind with worry.
Rox - 12-Aug-16 @ 9:40 PM
Two days ago, the agency through which I am working passed my details on to an accounting firm, who contacted me over the phone to offer me a rise in pay in return for switching to them as a payroll provider. My hiring agency also sent me a letter outlining the process and reasoning for the decision, which although arriving after the phone call, said largely the same thing: "Switch to this system for more money". I opted to wait until I'd read the letter, and after doing so contacted them to agree to registering with them. This time however, there was made mention of a few details that didn't sound exactly above-board to me; namely I'd have to register myself as a limited company to get onto a different tax rate. I voiced this concern down the phone and was assured that this was fine in the eyes of the law, so I agreed to registering with them. Yesterday I was emailed the full terms and conditions, and there are several points in them that I'm not happy with signing at all. It reads like an administrative and possibly legal minefield, which requires me to sign things like: "Do you accept all risks and responsibilities of being a limited company?" along with several blank HMRC documents and a disclaimer that sounds more like a cowboy builder wrote it than a legitimate accounting firm. Add to that the constant pushing in the email itself to sign them as quickly as possible, and I think you can see why I'm unhappy with agreeing to this down the phone. I'm going to talk to them later today and ask them why they withheld several pieces of decision-critical information until after I'd made the decision, but in the eyes of the law, is a verbal agreement still legally binding if it turns out to have been made based on misleading or deliberately incomplete information? At no point was I able to get the full terms explained to me until after I'd made the verbal agreement (and I asked for them at least twice before making said agreement), so where does the legal integrity of this situation stand?
Mike - 12-Aug-16 @ 1:30 PM
@pete - Unless there is anything in writing there is little you can do. Your F-i-L has a right to change his mind.
LindY76 - 12-Aug-16 @ 12:17 PM
TracyH - Your Question:
I am having a dispute with a wedding planner at the moment. I paid £200 deposit for her services. She then booked the church and reception for us in Greece. She made no mention that she had paid any money to secure these places and we had no written contract with terms and conditions made available to us. She just told us how much the final bill would be and asked us to pay it before flying out for the wedding. Five months before the wedding we found out my fiancé was going to be made redundant and as a result we cancelled the wedding. I was happy to lose my deposit. However the wedding planner is now saying I owe her £350 for deposits she has paid to venues/her time spent planning the wedding. I am refusing to pay her as she only sent me about 5 emails in the time leading up to the wedding and all she did was book us the reception and wedding venue, we hadn't even got to the stage where we filled in any of the legal paperwork yet. So really, I feel that the deposit I paid should be enough to cover her "time spent" and that if she did genuinely pay deposits to the venues that her business insurance should cover this. She is now threatening to take legal action as she believes that I owe her that money. Citizens advice said that I may be liable because a verbal agreement was made to pay for her services. But as far as I'm concerned, I booked her to plan the wedding, the wedding didn't go ahead, and it's poor business sense on her part not to ask for money upfront before booking things. I don't believe she did pay deposits for anything. I believe she wants the money for the time she wasted. Am I in the wrong here? I've read up on the law but it seems that it could go either way.

Our Response:
Regardless of whether a contract was signed, a contract stands because a deposit was paid. The wedding planner will have a case if she can prove money was paid out by providing receipts, plus evidence of the time she spent planing the wedding. Therefore, your best course of action would be to ask for the receipts and a breakdown of the time spent planning (she may have only sent you five emails, but she may have been putting other actions into place). When a planner is geared up to organising an event and the event is cancelled, there is a hole left which can be tough on business. However, unless she can prove that the money has been spent and the time allocated, then she would not have a case. If she can, then her taking it to court will cost you more as you would also incur costs if you lost, therefore you may have to bite the bullet and come to a compromise.
ContractsAndAgreements - 12-Aug-16 @ 11:38 AM
Hi. I am married to a British lady. Due to the nature of my job I got paid in my home land more than in the UK so we moved there and had a very good life. After three years my father in law ask me to return to the UK in order to see more of the grandchildren. In order to move back I had to give up my career and take a 50% pay cut. He said if we return he will give us one of his houses. He did not put it in our name but gave us the rental income for 2 year and then stop. I have suffered severe financial losses by moving back and now he refuse to give the house. He made the initial offer in front of my wife and his wife. Where do I legally stand on this one.
pete - 11-Aug-16 @ 12:54 PM
I am having a dispute with a wedding planner at the moment. I paid £200 deposit for her services. She then booked the church and reception for us in Greece. She made no mention that she had paid any money to secure these places and we had no written contract with terms and conditions made available to us. She just told us how much the final bill would be and asked us to pay it before flying out for the wedding. Five months before the wedding we found out my fiancé was going to be made redundant and as a result we cancelled the wedding. I was happy to lose my deposit. However the wedding planner is now saying I owe her £350 for deposits she has paid to venues/her time spent planning the wedding. I am refusing to pay her as she only sent me about 5 emails in the time leading up to the wedding and all she did was book us the reception and wedding venue, we hadn't even got to the stage where we filled in any of the legal paperwork yet. So really, I feel that the deposit I paid should be enough to cover her "time spent" and that if she did genuinely pay deposits to the venues that her business insurance should cover this. She is now threatening to take legal action as she believes that I owe her that money. Citizens advice said that I may be liable because a verbal agreement was made to pay for her services. But as far as I'm concerned, I booked her to plan the wedding, the wedding didn't go ahead, and it's poor business sense on her part not to ask for money upfront before booking things. I don't believe she did pay deposits for anything. I believe she wants the money for the time she wasted. Am I in the wrong here? I've read up on the law but it seems that it could go either way.
TracyH - 11-Aug-16 @ 12:15 PM
As far as I am concerned all verbal agreements are binding if the person believes that they are entering an agreement to be honoured by the person making it. If the person making the oral agreement does not honour the agreement and has profited in anyway for themselves or for another. That is a matter of fraud and a criminal offence. The only thing here is the evidence to support that a verbal agreement had been made in the first instance. If an oral agreement is made of any type it is binding upon the person and parties that made it. However, if someone makes a verbal agreement that is outside their capacity to perform it. It cannot be binding upon them because they did not have the capacity to honour the agreement in the first instance. That again is a deception and fraudulent misrepresentation, but it is a criminal offence defined by what gain or profit they had obtained from the misrepresentation. In my case I had entered an oral agreement and was offered permanent accommodation by Newham council after their first possession proceedings from 2006 to 2010 was dismissed. A number of things had to be done, as the alleged rent arrearshad to be written-off to allow bids to be placed on their choice based lettings scheme. A new tenancy agreement had to be signed that did not contain any unfair terms, which the previous agreement had contained and was to include a sum for water rates, which was the issue of their first possession proceedings (i.e. unpaid water rates that was not contained in the tenancy agreement as payable to them). The council then issued new possession proceedings not declaring that an oral agreement had been made to provide me with permanent accommodation. They had offered permanent accommodation but that had fell through and I was not given notice of my acceptance or not for this offer. They then offered temporary accommodation which I refused on the obvious grounds. They then discharged their duty to provide permanent accommodation to me and concealed from court that they had to reinstate their duty to provide permanent accommodation to obtain possession. I was evicted twice and re-entered twice to only be arrest, charge and convicted of squatting whilst reporting to the police that I had been defrauded of my home and personal property. I tried to have the possession order over turned on the grounds it had been obtained byway of fraud. I was ask to give a cause to why evidence (i.e an email) that had showed they had made an oral agreement was not disclosed earlier and he dismissed my application. I at the time did not see the need to reply, fraud is a criminal offence, but the court allowed the possession order to take place. and in my view aiding and abetting the council fraud to take unlawful seize both my personal property and home.I am still fighting them to this day and for the rest of my life I will pursue them
geniolawless - 8-Aug-16 @ 2:29 PM
@Rose #Rose Do not yield to the pressure because what you where doing with your brother was simple courtesy. Any attempt to coerce you of your prize is not backed up legally by law and therefore you have nothing to fear.
CHRIS - 7-Aug-16 @ 1:15 AM
Ama - Your Question:
In March we signed a contract for installation of an inground pool and we were told we would be swimming by July 4th. We were given the same projected date of completion in May. There have been many delays, a lack of communication, days into weeks when no one shows up to work even though we were told a crew would be there, etc. We called the President of the company, but nothing has changed. Unfortunately, we signed a contract that does not include any dates. But, I have taken copious notes (about 10 pages so far) throughout this process. Do we have any recourse? We just want the job to be done!

Our Response:
Yes, of course you have recourse if the job has not been done. I suggest in the first instance you perhaps employ a solicitor to write a letter saying if the work is not finished by a specific date, then you will take the matter further. This may do the job without you having to resort to legal action.
ContractsAndAgreements - 2-Aug-16 @ 10:09 AM
In March we signed a contract for installation of an inground pool and we were told we would be swimming by July 4th.We were given the same projected date of completion in May.There have been many delays, a lack of communication, days into weeks when no one shows up to work even though we were told a crew would be there, etc.We called the President of the company, but nothing has changed.Unfortunately, we signed a contract that does not include any dates.But, I have taken copious notes (about 10 pages so far) throughout this process.Do we have any recourse?We just want the job to be done!
Ama - 1-Aug-16 @ 12:50 AM
Hi everyone. Trust you all are well. I need some advice. I worked for a physio for 23 days i started on the 28 june nd 23 july was my last day i was treated very bad but my problem is i didnt sign a contract but der was a verbal agreement between him nd i that he will pay me R3300 now he saying thatd he not gna pay that amount and he spoke to him lawyers nd accountant so i had a big mouth saying that i didnt sign anything nd dnt threaten me woth this nonsense. What i wana knoe is how do i go about getting my salary.plz help
Lisa - 23-Jul-16 @ 12:16 PM
I've been selling my car recently. A dealer had agreed to buy it, he offered me a price which I was willing to accept although lower than hoped. He was then going to get a driver to book train tickets, inspect the car, pay the money and take the car. Whilst I was waiting for the dealer to get back to me with suitable train times I received another much higher offer. I've taken this offer and sold the car. The dealer is understandably unhappy and I offered as good will to pay for the train ticket. He is now wanting to sue due to loss of profit (on the future sale of my car). Where do I stand. I'm in Scotland and he is in England if it makes any difference.
Bruce - 20-Jul-16 @ 8:34 AM
I wa given a 5yr verbal tenancy and after 10 months was told had to move out.. I only took tenancy because it was offered for 5yrs as I only rent and need security for my family. .can I take him to court
Ciderman41 - 14-Jul-16 @ 12:48 PM
At my recent wedding my partner had arranged the hire of wedding vehicles. 24hours before the event the company informed us that one car was unavailable due to a mechanical issue, and an alternative would be sent as a last resort. The alternative was sent, we used the service but were unhappy with the standard of the vehicle. We reported this immediately the day after by phone. During the afternoon the driver approached the brides mother to say that both cars were due to leave and for them to stay it would cost £150 per vehicle she agreed verbally. But it turns out that one of the vehicles wasn't due to leave and paid until 15.30 already. Because the hire companies agent stated that both vehicles were due to leave and this was the basis of her agreeing to them staying - where do we stand? The owner of the company the day after also stated that we didn't have to pay and that he would sort out the wrong car issue after our return from honeymoon. We have since sent an email requesting a refund to the hire company and broker and he is now try to charge us more for the additional stay and threatening legal action. They are stating term and conditions but we were never given any at the time of booking or paying. Thanks
GT - 4-Jul-16 @ 5:55 AM
Louiland - Your Question:
Hi. My partner has received a county court order for a claim against breaching a verbal agreement- this agreement is linked to child maintenance, he has been over paying for 11 years in order to keep his son close (with constant threats his son will be moving to Scotland). The move has now happened and therefore stopped the payments and went through CSA. Unsurprisingly CSA advised to pay a lesser amount, however his ex is now seeking payment for thr interim period on the basis He has breached a verbal agreement. He is defending this as the agreement was breached with the move to Scotland. What will be the best form of evidence to provide to help our case? Any adviceWould be greatly received. Thank you

Our Response:
Any verbal family-based agreement for child maintenence is just that 'family-based' a negotiation between the two parties and generally not legally enforceable. If your partner decided to stop paying his ex, then she would have had the option to go straight to the CMS and make an application against him. The issue here is that child maintenance and child access have no bearing on each other, meaning your partner was still responsible to pay to support the day-to-day needs of the child regardless of any disagreement between the parents. However, if a family-based agreement breaks down and the resident-parent has an option to approach the CMS, then any claim she would have on arrears would be from the time she made the claim. If she didn't not take the matter further, then really that was up to her. Some legal advice would help your partner build a case in his defence.
ContractsAndAgreements - 1-Jul-16 @ 2:18 PM
I could use some help! I own a business in California and was considering selling the business. One Friday after work I went out to the bar with one of my Independent Contractors and we started talking about how I wanted to sell the business and he mentioned that he was looking to get into ownership. I asked if he had as much money to buy the business that I was looking for and he said no. I mentioned that I had made a deal with a prior employee that the employee could take over 80% of the business and pay me a monthly amount. the Independent contractor was interested so we jotted some numbers down on a napkin trying to figure out what he would be able to pay me if we did a deal like that. He even said he was coming into some money that he could use for a down payment in about a month or so. We bantered on for a little while longer but I never said "Its a deal" or anything like that and we never got into any of the specifics of the sale. About a half year later I found a buyer for the business but the independent contractor is claiming that we already had a deal and said that he would sue me if I didn't go through with our plan. Also, he never gave me any of the money that he mentioned that he was coming into. Am I to consider that we had a contract because we scribbled down some numbers on a napkin while drunk? Normally, the buyer makes an offer and the seller accepts the offer but what is the situation when I, the seller, come up with a way for the buyer to pay me? Was it a binding contract if I never said, "yes, I will sell you my business"?
Matty Bigg - 1-Jul-16 @ 3:18 AM
Hi. My partner has received a county court order for a claim against breaching a verbal agreement- this agreement is linked to child maintenance, he has been over paying for 11 years in order to keep his son close (with constant threats his son will be moving to Scotland) . The move has now happened and therefore stopped the payments and went throughCSA. Unsurprisingly CSA advised to pay a lesser amount, however his ex is now seeking payment for thr interim period on the basis He has breached a verbal agreement. He is defending this as the agreement was breached with the move to Scotland. What will be the best form of evidence to provide to help our case? Any advice Would be greatly received. Thank you
Louiland - 30-Jun-16 @ 7:52 PM
Damzil in distress- Your Question:
Hi there any help. I started to work at a company in September 2015 I never signed a contract and when I queried about it manager told me there was no need for a contact. She told me I would work Monday to Friday from 07:00 -17:00 and every second Saturday from 07:00-12:00 witch was fine. A few days ago was told my hours is changing from 6:00-14:00 and 14:00 -21:00 this is for Monday to Friday one week I'd work from 06:00-14:00 and the next week from 13:00-21:00 I'd be working every Saturday and Sunday from 06:00-13:00 one week and the next weekend 13:00-21:00 I was told if I'm unhappy with the hours I must resign is there anything legally what I could do?

Our Response:
Yes, your employer must get your agreement if they wish to make changes to your contract. While you say you do not have a contract, if you are working for someone there will always be a contract between you as the employee and your employer. That does not necessarily mean that you will have that contractual arrangement in writing. The simple fact that your employer has agreed to pay you in return for you doing work for them creates a contractual relationship. Some employers think that they have greater flexibility if they do not issue documentary contracts when in reality the opposite can be true. It is much easier for an employer to assert the terms of an employee’s employment if they are written in black and white and do not provide any room for manoeuvre. If such a document does not exist, this provides significantly wider scope for flexibility. If your employer is asking you to resign as a result of you not accepting the new hours then your employer may be working outside the law, therefore I suggest you give ACAS a call in order to make sure you are aware of your rights. If your employer tries to dismiss you if you do not agree to the terms, then you may have a case for unfair dismissal. You can contact ACAS via the link here.
ContractsAndAgreements - 30-Jun-16 @ 10:40 AM
Hi there any help. I started to work at a company in September2015 I never signed a contract and when I queriedabout it manager told me there was no need for a contact.She told me i would work Monday to Friday from 07:00 -17:00 and every second Saturday from 07:00-12:00 witch was fine. A few days ago was told my hours is changing from 6:00-14:00 and 14:00 -21:00 this is for Monday to Friday one week I'd work from 06:00-14:00 andthe next week from 13:00-21:00 I'd be working every Saturday and Sunday from 06:00-13:00 one week and the next weekend 13:00-21:00 I was told if I'm unhappy with the hoursI must resign is there anything legallywhat I could do?
Damzil in distress - 29-Jun-16 @ 12:03 PM
I am a manager of a small establishment . I received a telephone call offer an online service for the business. I thought this company was already supplying a service as they said it was to do with goggle. I thought I was authorised to ok this service but did not realise they wanted £299. My employer didn't want this service so I tried to contact the company through email but did not receive any contact for several days. When the company did get in contact we were told that we could not cancel as it was too late. I explained I was not told any time scale for cancellation which hey then offered to reduce the cancellation fee to £99. I explained that the owner of the company did not want the service and would not pay. The person I spoke to said they would get back to me as I could not personally clear the fee. A week later I had another phone call demanding payment where I explained everything again and was told that they would need payment. I was not told any terms or conditions but they told me sternly it is clear on their website which was in an email that I did not receive.
G4ilb - 27-Jun-16 @ 7:26 PM
I purchased a vehicle at a buy here pay here lot and 2 months later I returned it because the owner said he would re finance my money for the vehicle but since the insurance did not pay for the broken side mirror and the small scuff mark on the door he refused to pay. He alsostated that I could not purchase the vehicle back from this agreement we made so idk what to do and oh i put my truck on my mom insurance and he put a claim on her insurance and it was not insured within 1 week
Nikki - 26-Jun-16 @ 10:50 AM
Hi we got a car on pcp 3 years ago and were under the impression it was due for renewal after 3 years. (Hubby and I) Today I went car shopping and had told the other car garages that it's due to be swapped in by end of July ... We were then told by another dealer different to the one we are with at the moment that it's actually a 4 year deal meaning we would owe the last years payment if we were to swap it in this year. We were both adamant it was a 3 year deal and came home to check. Only to find out that we have a lease agreement with none of our signatures on. We only have one document with our signature and that's for a 3 year gap insurance. Now we think the sales person at the time lied to us that it was 3 years when it wasn't then gave us four year papers knowing once we read it all we will find out the truth. Where do we stand with this. Are we still leagally bound for another year even though we haven't signed the agreement or do we just tell the dealer and hope they are reasonable enough to let us part exchange with no negative equity or walk away from the deal altogether? The reason why we need a new car is the current one is a fiat 500 and I'm 5 months pregnant so need a bigger car for another child as boot space and car seat space is scarce Help!,
Mizzy - 18-Jun-16 @ 11:44 PM
JJ - Your Question:
3 years ago, I embarked on a venture with my brother, sister and mother to start up a Buy to Let property portfolio. We do not have good occupation related pensions and felt investing in property for our future would be the best option. We were a close family and my parents wanted us to all benefit collectively as equals. However, our individual funds differed massively. In order to make the venture possible my mother and I financed the majority of the capital required. A verbal agreement was made between my brother and sister that they would contribute as much as they could afford initially and going forward they would pay back a fixed amount each month until their debts were repaid. Our portfolio is made up of 4 properties. To make things straight forward we each own 25% which is written on the title deeds to each property. However, my sister reneged on our verbal agreement. She refused to pay the monthly instalments whilst my brother continued to pay with no quibble. We then made another verbal agreement with my sister. Her potion of the profit after tax would be used to pay her debt off to my mother and I. A year down the line my sister has now expressed her desire to exit the venture and have her money back. However she has also had the properties independently valued and is demanding 25% of the total figure. We have detailed accounts which show the exact transactions made by my sister to date. She only put in £21,303.30. My mother, brother and I have stumped up the remaining £173,000 (£57,600 each). My sister has now employed a solicitor. We have received a number of letters over the past few months. In the latest letter they are demanding we pay my sister £96,000. However, they also state that my sister will accept £75,000 if we pay the money to her immediately. If we do not comply they will be taking us to court for the full £96,000. We have not sought legal advice yet. Where do we stand? My sister reneged on a verbal agreement to repay a debt to my mother and I. We are still owed £28,000 and yet she is demanding £96,000. Will the verbal agreement that was made be legitimate in court?

Our Response:
Unfortunately, we cannot advise on this as we can only issue general advice, not specific. I suggest given the amounts involved that you seek legal advice if you wish to argue the case.
ContractsAndAgreements - 3-Jun-16 @ 11:20 AM
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